I am recently reading about Fourier transforms and convolutions. It was a surprise to me that it takes quite several paragraphs to prove the measurability of innocent looking $f(x-y)$ (reference: proof that $\hat{f}(x,y)=f(x-y)$ is measurable if $f$ is measurable, Stein & Shakarchi Prop 3.9). It makes me wonder:
Does it ever happen in history that mathematicians publish wrong results because they assumed measurability of some (innocent looking) sets or functions?
